Thursday, 9 June 2011

Indian Civil Services Exam 2011- CSAT- Paper II-Model Test -1-Part1

Indian Civil Services Exam - 2011- CSAT-Paper 2- Model Test 1-Part one


CSAT Paper II-

Time Allowed : Two Hours                                               Maximum Marks : 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1. This Test Booklet contains 150 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers).

You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

2. You have to mark to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.

3. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions of UPSC

4. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

5. Penalty for wrong answers :

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE
IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to
that question will be deducted a penalty.

ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happen to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.

iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.




1. A ‘diverse organisation’ is one which values differences. The leaders in a diverse organization

I. Value diversity.
II. have self-respect and respect for others.
III. recruit broadly and fairly.
IV. reinforce productive differences.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) I, II and III only
b) II, III and IV only
c) I, III and IV only
d) All the above


Ans: D


2. Good decision-making involves

I. identifying the purpose of the decision.
II. Indentifying principles to judge the alternatives.
III. evaluating each choice in terms of consequences.
IV. not taking any action of the decisions taken.

Which of the above statements are correct?
a) I, II and III only
b) II, III and IV only
c) I, III and IV only
d) All the above


Ans: A


3. The abilities required to make a good decisions include -
I. Self confidence.
II. analytical thinking
III. Critical thinking
IV. Conflict management
a) I, II and III only b) II, III and IV only
c) I, III and IV only d) All the above


Ans: D


4. Consider the following statements.
I. The characteristic needed for ethical decisionmaking involves interpreting one’s action relative
to the potential impact on others.
II. For making an ethical decision, the leader needs to have an intellectual attitude to deal with complexities of human interaction in a systematic manner.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) I only
b) II only
c) Both I and II
d) None of the above


Ans: C


5. Consider the following statements.
I. A good problem solver should maintain open and honest communication with the people involved and not resort to personal attacks or finger-pointing.
II. A good problem solver discourages creativity from participants.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) I only
b) II only
c) Both I and II
d) None of the above


Ans: A


6. The common sources of conflict in an organization are-

I. Values.
II. attitudes.
III. Expectations.
IV. Personalities.
Seclect the correct answer from the codes given below:
a) I, II and III only
b) II, III and IV only
c) I, III and IV only
d) All the above


Ans: D


7. A good conflict resolution skill includes.

I. keeping people and problems separate.
II. evalution of suources of conflilct.
Seclect the correct answer from the codes given below:
a) I only
b) II only
c) Both I and II
d) None of the above


Ans: C


8. Stress in an organisation leads to

I. high production.
II. high turnover.
III. absenteeism.
IV. low morale.

Seclect the correct answer from the codes given  below:
a) I, II and III only
b) II, III and IV only
c) I, III and IV only
d) All the above


Ans: B


9. Which of the following is/are likely to be understood as a desirable interpersonal skill across cultures?
I. Greeting people with a smile.
II. Maintaining direct eye contact while speaking to anyone.
III. Offering a handshake as soon as you meet a person.
a) I only
b) I and II only
c) I and III only
d) I, II and III


Ans: A



10. In a team whose members come from diverse cultures and social backgrounds, it is best for the leader to

(a) emphasise the diversities
(b) look for and emphasise the commonalities among members.
(c) identify himself/herself with the minority and support them.
(d) Play by the ear and be ready to resolve misunderstandings


Ans: B



11. Being assertive means
I. to be clear and specific in stating what you want.
II. directing your meassage to the person for whom it is meant.
III. encourage the other person/persons to give you specific feedback on what you say.
a) I only
b) I and II only
c) I and III only
d) I, II and III only


Ans: D



12. The abilities needed for strees management are
I. Change the stressor or environment.
II. Change the attitude and perception that affect responses.
III. identify causes of strees.
IV. positive thinking

a) I, II and III only
b) II, III and IV only
c) I and II only
d) All the above


Ans: D



13. All types of communication requires
I. a sender.
II. words.
III. a message.
IV. a receiver
Select the correct code from those given below.
a) I, II and III only
b) II, III and IV only
c) I, III and IV only
d) All the above


Ans: C



14. Consider the following statements.
I. Communication is a process by which information is channelled and imparted by a
sender to a receiver through some medium.
II. Communication help managerial planning to be performed effectively.
III. Communication is a means, not an end.
IV. Management can be hindered by communication

Select the correct code from those given below.
a) I, II and III only
b) II, III and IV only
c) I, III and IV only
d) All the above


Ans: A



15. The functions of communication include
I. facilitating decision-making
II. making co-ordination possible
III. improving morale and motivation
IV. engulfing superior-subordinate relationship
Select the correct code from those given below.
a) I, II and III only
b) II, III and IV only
c) I, III and IV only
d) All the above


Ans: A



16. The processes involved in a good communication include
I. encoding.
II. decoding
III. giving feedback
IV. reducing noise
Select the correct code from those given below.
a) I, II and III only
b) II, III and IV only
c) I, III and IV only
d) All the above


Ans: D



17. The purpose of communication in an organization includes
I. Providing data necessary for decision-making.
II. indoctrinating employees with positive work attitude.
III. increading the acceptance of organisational rules.
IV. providing feedback to various elements in the organisation.
Select the correct code.
a) I, II and III only
b) II, III and IV only
c) I, III and IV only
d) All the above


Ans: D



18. Management information system (MIS) is an effective control device which helps to
(a) solicit information from the employees which may be of help to the management
(b) monitor and control various activities in the organisation
(c) reduce labour turnover
(d) install in each employee personal pride in being a member of the organization


Ans: B


19. Which of the following is not a characteristic of formal communication?
(a) It is intentionally created
(b) It is flexible
(c) It is largely written and is always on record
(d) It is controlled and motivated by the management


Ans: B



20. Which of the following is not a drawback of verbal communication?
(a) Records are maintained in it, therefore, it is verifiable
(b) Words can mean quite different things to different people
(c) Many organisations have developed a specialized language that often facilitates communication
between insiders but largely excluded outsiders
(d) Business talk may be interpreated at face value


Ans: A



21. Non-verbal communication signals include
I Internete
II Proximity
III Facial expression
IV Direction of gaze
a) I, II and III only
b) II, III and IV only
c) I, III and IV only
d) All the above


Ans: B


22. Symbolic communication includes
I. the places we live
II. the clothes we wear
III. the vehicle we use
IV. how the body is postured.
Select the correct code from those given below.
a) I, II and III only
b) II, III and IV only
c) I, III and IV only
d) All the above


Ans: A


23. Which of the following is not a barrier of communication
(a) Noise
(b) Dogmatism
(c) Feedback
(d) Halo effect


Ans: C



24. Barriers of communication include
I Filtering information
II information overload
III defensiveness
IV integrity of purpose
choose the correct code from those given below :
a) I, II and III only
b) II, III and IV only
c) I, III and IV only
d) All the above


Ans: A



25. Noise in communication interferes with
I sender
II the message
III receiver
IV all the above
a) I, II and III only
b) II, III and IV only
c) I, III and IV only
d) All the above


Ans: D



26. A ladder lies against a wall. The top of the ladder reaches 8 ft. above the ground. When the ladder slips
two meters away from the wall, the top of the ladder touches the foot of the wall. The length of the ladder
is
a) 15
b) 17
c) 8
d) 10


Ans: B



27. A takes 4 days to do a work. B takes twice as long as A. C takes twice as long as B and D takes twice as
long as C. They are made in groups of two. One of the groups takes two third of the time taken by second
pair. What is the combination of the first pair?
a) A, C
b) A, D
c) B, C
d) B, D


Ans: B



28. A student got marks in the ratio 6:7:8:9:10 in five subjects having equal maximum marks. In all, he
scored 60% marks. In how many subjects, he got more than 50%?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 3
d) None of these


Ans: A



29. Ram is having 158 coins of one rupee. He puts it in different bags, so that he can hand over the cash of
any denomination required between Rs. 1 to Rs. 158.
What is the least no. of bags required?
a) 11
b) 13
c) 15
d) None of these


Ans: D



30. There are three classes X, Y and Z. Average of class X is 83. Average of Class Y is 76. Average of class Z is 85. Average of class X and Y is 79, average of class Y and Z is 81. Find average of three Classes.
a) 81
b) 81.5
c) 82
d) 84


Ans: B



31. There are five nos. a, b, c, d, e having value of 2, 5, 6, 10, 4 not necessarily in this order. We have following clues
1) c + a = e
2) e + a = d
3) b - d = d
Which of the following is true?
a) 10 - 5 = b - d
b) 4 + 6 = a + e
c) 4 - 2 = b -d
d) None of these


Ans: C



32. All the pages of a book starting from page 1 are summed. One of the pages has been added twice,
and the total thus obtained is 1000. Which is the page that has been added twice?
a) 10
b) 12
c) 14
d) None of these


Ans: A



33. In a four digit number, the sum of digits in the first and fourth place is twice the sum of the digits in the third and fourth place. The difference in the first and third digit is equal to the second digit. What is the digit in the third place?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 1


Ans: B



34. A person had to multiply two numbers. Instead of multiplying by 35, the person multiplied by 53, and
the product went up by 540. What was the raised product?
a) 780
b) 1040
c) 1590
d) None of these


Ans: C 



35. 09/12/2001 is Sunday. What was the day on 09/12/1971?
a) Thursday
b) Wednesday
c) Saturday
d) Sunday


Ans: A



36. There is a circular field having four doors in North, East, West and South. A person walks 3 meters from
the North door. Another person comes out of the South door and walks 9 meter towards East so that he is
just able to see the first man. What is the diameter of the field.
a) 12
b) 15
c) 9
d) None of these


Ans: C



37. Ram has 128 boxes with him. He has to put at least 120 oranges in one box and 144 at the most. Find the
least number of boxes which will have the same number of oranges.
a) 5
b) 6
c) 103
d) Can’t determine.


Ans: D



38. There are two persons A and B who joined an organization on 1st Jan 1970. A joined at Rs. 300
and annual increment of Rs. 30. B gets salary of Rs. 200 and hike of Rs. 50 per six month. Find the total
amount distributed at the end of 31st December 1979.
a) 91200
b) 92800
c) 97200
d) None of these


Ans: D


39. If X and Y are positive integers and X + Y = 1, what is the least value of (X + 1/X)2 + (Y + 1/Y)2 ?
a) 24
b) 12.5
c) 20
d) None of these



Ans: B



40. Rs. 960 is formed with denominations of Rs. 5, Rs. 2, Re. 1 coins. If the no. of coins Rs. 2 and Re. 1 ae
interchanged then the amount varies by Rs. 40. If the total no. of coins are 300, find the no. of coins of
Rs. 5.
a) 100
b) 140
c) 60
d) None of these


Ans: B



41. A shopkeeper increases the selling price of his articles by 10% and then reduces it by 10%. Again he does the same thing. Finally the selling price of the articles comes down to 1944.75. What was the original selling price.
a) 1984.75
b) 2000
c) 2500
d) 2148.75


Ans: A



42. a, b, c, d are non Zero real numbers. If a is > b and c > d and abcd = 1, then which of the following is
correct?

a) bd > ac
b) a + c > b + d
c) a2 b < d
d) None of these


Ans: B



43. There are two lights. The first light blinks 3 times per minute while the other blinks 5 times in two minutes.
Find the no. of times they will blink together in an
hour.
a) 20
b) 30
c) 60
d) None of these


Ans: B



44. In a shop, cost of 3 burgers, 7 milkshake and French fries is Rs. 120. In the same shop, cost of 4 burgers,
10 milkshake and french fries is Rs. 164.5. Find the cost of 1 Burger, 1 Milkshake and frech fries in the
shop.
a) 41
b) 21
c) 31
d) None of these


Ans: D



45. Fresh graps contain 90% water, dry graps contain 20% water. From 20 Kg fresh graps, How many Kg
of dry grape can be obtain?
a) 2.4
b) 2.5
c) 2.2
d) None of these


Ans: B



46. If A, b and C are running a race A beats B by 12m while B beats C by 8m. What is the length of the
track?
a) 48
b) 30
c) 50
d) None of these


Ans: A



47. The difference in the money between A and B is Rs.1450. C has money twice of B and difference in the
money between A and C is Rs. 700. So the amount with A is?
a) 750 Rs.
b) 2200 Rs.
c) 800 Rs.
d) None of these


Ans: B



48. P, Q and S are moving on a circular stadium of circumference 2100m. When P completes one round,
Q is still 700 m behind. When S completes one round, Q is 300 m ahead of him. How far from the starting
point three of them will meet for the first time?
a) 168
b) 2568
c) 2100
d) None of these


Ans: A



49. The difference between compound interest and simple interest at the same interest at the same rate for Rs.5,000 for 2 year is Rs. 72. The rate of interest per annum is
a) 6%
b) 8%
c) 10%
d) 12%


Ans: D



50. A triangle with sides 13 cm, 14 cm and 15 cm is inscribed in a circle. The radius of the circle is
a) 2 cm
b) 3 cm
c) 4 cm
d) 8.125 cm


Ans: D


51. Two-third of a consignment was sold at a profit of 5% and the remainder at a loss of 2%. If the total
profit was Rs. 400, the value of the consignment (in rupees) was
a) 20,000
b) 15,000
c) 12,000
d) 10,000


Ans: B



52. A gardener plants 17956 trees in such a way that there are as many rows as there are trees in row. The number of trees in a row are?
a) 136
b) 134
c) 144
d) 154


Ans: B


53. Three numbers are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5. The sum of the largest and the smallest equals the sum of the third and 52. The smallest number is
a) 20
b) 27
c) 39
d) 52


Ans: C


54. The areas of two similar triangles are 12 cm2 and 48 cm2. If the height of the smaller one is 2.1 cm, then
the corresponding height of the bigger one is
a) 4.41 cm
b) 8.4 cm
c) 4.2 cm
d) 0.525 cm


Ans: C



55. An alloy contains zinc and copper in the ratio 5 : 8 and another alloy contains zinc and copper in the ratio 5 : 3. If equal amounts of both the alloys are melted together, then the ratio of zinc and copper in the
resulting alloy is
a) 25 : 24
b) 3 : 8
c) 1203 : 105
d) 105: 103


Ans: D


56. The ratio of Laxmi’s age to the age of her mother 3:11. The difference of their ages is 24 years. The
ratio of their ages after 3 years will be
a) 1 : 3
b) 2 : 3
c) 3 : 5
d) 2 : 5


Ans: A



57. Four milkmen rented a pasture. A grazed 18 cows for 4 months, B, 25 cows for 2 months, C, 28 cows
for 5 months and D, 21 cows for 3 months. If A’s share of rent is Rs. 360, the total rent of the field (in
rupees) is
a) 1,500
b) 1,600
c) 1,625
d) 1,650


Ans: C


58. A window and a son are to recive Rs. 20,000 and Rs. 10,000 respectively from an inheritance of Rs.
1,00,000. The rest is to be divided so that the widow receives 3/2 times as much of it as the son. Then the
amounts received by the {Window, Son} pair in thousands of Rs. is :
a) {60, 40}
b) {42, 28}
c) {52, 48}
d) {62, 38}


Ans: D



59. A Shopkeeper marks the selling price 30% above than the cost price. Now if he sells the things at 20%
discount for cash and 10% discount on credit. If he sells 70% of the articles on cash and remaining on
credit, then what is his profit percent over the total business?
a) 4.2%
b) 8.4%
c) 7.9%
d) 7.6%

No comments:

Post a Comment