Wednesday, 23 May 2012

Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2012-General Studies Paper 1-Part 1


Indian Civil Services Exam-2012 Preliminary Exam: General Studies Paper-Part 1

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVEANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASEMAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses (Answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for Wrong Answers
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the Answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong Answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one Answer, it will be treated as a wrong Answer even if one of the given Answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no Answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.


1. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) ?
1. CAG exercise exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency / financial emergency.
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee. 
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances. 
4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only    
(b) 2 only 
(c) 2 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


ANSWER: c


2. The Endeavour of ‘Janani Suraksha Yojana’ Programme is 
1. to promote institutional deliveries
2. to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery 
3. to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3


ANSWER: a


3. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment  
(a) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months.  
(b) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months 
(c) must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament 
(d) must be a member of the Lok Sabha 


ANSWER: a


4. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements: 
1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in Court of Law. 
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d)  Neither 1 nor 2


ANSWER: c


5. Consider the following 
1. Hotels and restaurants 
2. Motor transport undertakings  
3. Newspaper establishments 
4. Private medical institutions  
The employees of which of the above can have the ‘Social Security’ coverage under Employees’ State Insurance Scheme? 
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 4 only
 (c) 1, 3 and 4 only 
 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


ANSWER: d


6. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?


1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
2. The Report of the public Accounts Committee 
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General 
4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes  
Select the correct Answer using the codes given below : 
(a) 1 only   
(b) 2 and 4 only 
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only 
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


ANSWER: c



7. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of 
1. Ordinary Legislation 
2. Money Bill  
3. Constitution Amendment Bill 
Select the correct Answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3


ANSWER: a



8. How to District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India
1. DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the country. 
2. DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the causes of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures.  
3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes.  
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only   
(b) 3 and 4 only 
(c) 4 only 
(d) 1, 2, 3  and 4


ANSWER: b



9. Which of the following is / are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution? 
1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture 
2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity  
Select the correct Answer using codes given below: 
(a) 1 and 2 only   
(b) 2 only 
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only 
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


ANSWER: c


10. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India
1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India. 
2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief justice of India only.  
3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote. 
4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.  
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3 only 
(b) 3 and 4 only 
(c) 4 only 
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


ANSWER: a



11. To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this context, what advantage does thorium hold over uranium ? 
1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium. 
2. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium.  
3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3


ANSWER: d



12. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs  
(a) the water vapour of the air and retains its heat    
(b) the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation 
(c) all the solar radiations
(d) the infrared part of the solar radiation 


ANSWER: d



13. Which one of the following sets of elements war primarily responsible for the origin of life on the Earth ?   
(a) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium  
(b) Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen  
(c) Oxygen, Calcium, Phosphorous 
(d) Carbon, Hydrogen, Potassium 


ANSWER: b



14. What are the reasons for the people’s resistance to the introduction of Bt brinjal in India ?  
1. Bt brinjal has been created by inserting a gene from a soil fungus into its genome. 
2. The seeds of Bt brinjal are terminator seeds and therefore, the farmers have to buy the seeds before every season from the seed companies.   
3. There is an apprehension that the consumption of Bt brinjal may have adverse impact on health. 
4. There is some concern that the introduction of Bt brinjal may have adverse effect on the biodiversity. 
Select the correct Answer using the codes given below : 
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only   
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 3 and 4 only 
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


ANSWER: c



15. Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically engineered plants have been created? 
1. To enable them to withstand drought  
2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce  
3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations 
4. To increase their shelf life 
Select the correct Answer using the codes given below : 
(a) 1 and 2 only   
(b) 3 and 4 only 
(c) 1,2  and 4 only 
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


ANSWER: c



16. Consider the following statements :  The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he  
1. exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British.  
2. interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of Indians.   
3. stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only   
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3


ANSWER: a

17. With reference to Dhrupad, one of the major traditions of India that has been kept alive for centuries, which of the following statements are correct ?  
1. Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput kingdoms during the Mughal period. 
2. Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual music. 
3. Dhrupad Alap uses Sanskrit syllables from Mantras. 
Select the correct Answer using the codes given below : 
(a) 1 and 2 only   
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c)1, 2 and 3 
(d) None of the above is correct 


ANSWER: b



18. How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances ?  
1. Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatanatyam.  
2. Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of Bharatanatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.   
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only   
(b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2 
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 


ANSWER: a



19. With reference to the religious history of medieval India, the Sufi mystics were known to pursue which of the following practices ? 
1. Meditation and control of breath  
2. Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place  
3. Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy in their audience  
Select the correct Answer using the codes given below : 
(a) 1 and 2 only   
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3  


ANSWER: d



20. The Rowlatt Act aimed at 
(a) compulsory economic support to war efforts
(b) imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial 
(c) suppression of the Khilafat Movement 
(d) imposition of restriction on freedom of the press 


ANSWER: b



21. The Lohore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) is very important in history, because  
1. the Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence 
2. the rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that Session 
3. a resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that Session
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 and 3 
(c) 1 and 3 
(d) None of the above


 ANSWER: a



22. Lord Buddha’s image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called ‘Bhumisparsha Mudra’. It symbolizes 
(a) Buddha’s calling of the Earth to watch over Mara and to prevent Mara from disturbing his mediation.   
(b) Buddha’s calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara
(c) Buddha’s reminder to his followers that they all arise from the Earth and finally dissolve into the Earth, and thus this life is transitory
(d) Both the statements  (a) and  (b) are correct in this context 


ANSWER: b



23. The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of 
(a) Bhakti    
(b) image worship and Yajnas 
(c) worship of nature and Yajnas
(d) worship of nature and Bhakti 


ANSWER: c



24. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj ? 
1. It opposed idolatry. 
2. It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts. 
3. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible.  
Select the correct Answer using the codes given below : 
(a) 1 only   
(b) 1 and 2 only 
(c) 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3


ANSWER: b



25. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers’ bank. This would imply which of the following ? 
1. Other banks retain their deposits with the RBI.
2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need. 
3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters. 
Select the correct Answer using the codes given below : 
(a) 2 and 3 only   
(b) 1 and 2 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3


ANSWER: b

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