Civil Services Exam 2013-General Studies Model Test 1-Part 3
51.In which of the following maters, the power and status
of the Rajya Sabha are equal to that of the Lok Sabha?
1. Introduction and
passage of financial bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of
India
2. Approval of
ordinance issued by the President
3. Discuss the
budget and vote on the demands for grants
4. Remove the
council of ministers by passing a no-confidence motion
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
Answer: A
52.Consider the following oath or affirmation:
1. To faithfully execute the office;
2. To preserve, protect and defend
the Constitution and the law; and
3. To devote himself to the service
and wellbeing of the people of India
The above give oath
or affirmation is for?
The President of
India
The Prime Minister
of India
The Council of
Ministers
The Vise President
of India
Answer: A
53. Which one of the following statement is correct?
a) The Attorney
General has the right to speak and to take part in the proceeding of both the
Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament
of which he may be named a member, and has a right to vote
b) The term of
office of the Attorney General is five year from the date of his appointment
c) The Constitution
(Article 79) has provided for the office of the Attorney General for India
d) The Attorney
General may be removed by the President at any time
Answer: D
54. Which of the following statements are correct about
Finance Commission?
1. The Finance
Commission consists of a Chairman and four other members to be appointed by the
President
2. The Constitution
authorizes the Parliament to determined the qualifications of members of the
commission and the manner in which they should be selected
3. The Finance
Commission is constituted by the President of India every five year or at such
earlier time as he considers necessary
4. Article 280 of
the Constitution of India provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi judicial
body
Select the correct
answer from the code given below:
1 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
55. Any Party is recognized as a State party
1. If it secure six
per cent of the valid votes polled in the state at a general election to the
legislative assembly of the state concerned; and, in addition, it wins 2 seats
in the assembly of the state concerned
2. If is secures
six per cent of the valid votes polled in the state at a general election to
the Lok Sabha from the state concerned; and, in addition, it win 1 seat in the
Lok Sabha from the state concerned
3. If it wins three
per cent of seats in the legislative assembly at a general election to the
legislative assembly of the state concerned or 3 seats in the assembly,
whichever is more
4. If it wins 1
seat in the Lok Sabha for every 25 seats or any fraction thereof allotted to
the state at a general election to the Lok Sabha from the state concerned
Select the correct
answer from the code given below:
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
56. The fourteenth Amendment Act, 1962
a) Incorporated Goa, Daman and Diu
in the Indian Union
b) Incorporated Puducherry in the
Indian Union
c) Included sindhi as the 15th
language in the Eight Scheduled
d) Increased the number of Lok Sabha
seats from 525 to 545
Answer: B
57. The Inter-State Council consist of
1. Prime Minister
2. Chief Ministers of all the States
3. Chief Ministers of Union
Territories having legislative assemblies
4. Administrators of Union
Territories not having legislative assemblies
5. Six Central Cabinet Ministers,
including the Home Minister
Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
1,2,3 and 4 only
1,2 and 5 only
2,3,4, and 5 only
1,2,3,4 and 5
Answer: D
58. Which of the following statements are correct with
regard to Ad hoc Judge?
1. The Chief
Justice of India can appoint a Judge of a High Court as an Ad hoc Judge of the
Supreme Court
2. Only after
consultation with Chief Justice of the High Court an Ad hoc Judge can be
appointed
3. To appoint and
Ad hoc Judge for Supreme Court Parliament consent is required
4.An Ad hoc Judge
did not enjoy all the jurisdiction, power and privileges of a Judge of the
Supreme Court
Select the correct
answer from the code given below:
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1,2,3 and 4
Answer: A
59.Consider the following statements about Administration
of Union Territory:
1. The Union
Territories of Puducherry (in 1963) and Delhi (in 1992) are provided with a
legislative assembly and a council of ministers headed by a chief minister
2. The Parliament
can make laws on any subject of the three lists (including the State List) for
the Union Territories (except Puducherry and Delhi)
3. The legislative
assembly of Puducherry can make laws on any subject of the State List and the
Concurrent List
4. The legislative
assembly of Delhi can also make laws on any subject matters of the State List
and the Concurrent List
Which of the
statements given above are correct?
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
1,2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: B
60.The President can remove the Chairman or any member of
State Public Service Commission (SPSC) for misbehaviour. However, in this case,
a) The President has to refer the
matter to the Parliament for an enquiry
b) The President has refer the
matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry
c) The President has to refer the
matter to the Govern of the concern State for an enquiry
d) The President is free to take his
own decision as per the provision of the Constitution
Answer: B
61. With
reference to Scheduled Commercial Banks, consider the following statements:
1It is constituted by Parliament Act
2. Every Commercial Banks can
directly take benefits from the RBI
3. There is no
limitation of boundary for Commercial Banks, even in foreign countries, it can
branches
4. The Banking
Regulation Act, 1949, is totally applicable to Commercial Banks
5. Commercial Banks
get concessional loans from RBI
Which of the
statements given above are correct about Commercial Banks?
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1,3,4 and 5 only
1,2,3 and 4 only
Answer: D
62. Consider the following functions:
1. Regulates the
credit policy
2. RBI does not act
as the custodian of the country’s foreign exchange reserves
3. Manage exchange
control and acts as the agent of Government in respect of India’s membership of
IMF
4. Acts as banker
to the Government
Which of the given
above functions is/are performed by RBI?
a) 1,3 and 4 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 4 only
d) 1,2,3 and 4
Answer: A
63.The Unorganized Worker’s Social Security Act 2008 has
the objective of providing social security to unorganized workers. The Act
provide for constitution of
1. National Social Security Board
which will recommend social security schemes for these workers
2. State Social Security Board which
will recommend social security schemes for these workers
3. Employer-Employee Social Security
Board which will recommend social security schemes for these workers
4. Trade Union Social Security Board
which will recommend social security schemes for these workers
Select the correct
answer from the code given below:
1 and 2 only
1, 3 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
64.Consider the following statements:
When a company is
allowed to buy-back its shares
It means it is
increasing its owner-ship
By doing so it can
increasing its liability of payment of dividend to share holders
It means it is
increasing the owner-ship of its shareholders
Select the correct
answer from the code given below:
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
3 only
Answer: C
65. Under Basel III, consider the following statements:
1. The Basel
Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS) requirement is minimum 7 per cent of
risk weighted assets RWAs).
2. Tier 1 capital
must be at least 5 per cent of RWAs
3. Common Equity
Tier 1 (CET1) capital must be at least 5.5 per cent of RWAs.
Select the correct
answer from the code given below:
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
3 only
Answer: D
66. Consider the following statement:
The deficit
financing leads to the situation of Forced saving
Money supply will
decrease
Inflationary rice
in the prices
Select the correct
answer from the code given below:
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
67. Which one of the following statements is correct
about Offer Curve?
a) A diagrammatic
technique to illustrate the forces of reciprocal demand
b) A graph of all
possible combinations of inputs that result in the production of a given level
of output
c) Tangency of the
consumer’s indifference curve and his budget line determine the consumer’s
equilibrium
d) It is a curve
showing the locus of combinations of the amounts of two goods, such that the
individual is indifferent between any combinations on that curve yield same
level of satisfaction
Answer: A
68. Consider the following statements:
The IMF introduced
the Special Drawing Rights (SDR) in 1969 to support the Bretton Woods fixed
exchange rate system.
Because of concern
that the stock and prospective growth of international reserves might not be
sufficient to support the expansion of world trade
As a supplementary
reserve asset, which the IMF could ‘allocate’ periodically to members when the
need is arose, and cancel, as necessary
Select the correct
answer from the code given below:
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
69. With reference to Human Development Index (HDI),
consider the following statements?
1. It is a multidimensional index
2. HDI focuses on one aspect only
that is growth
3. HDI talks about ends as well as
means
Which of the given
above statements is/are correct about HDI?
1 only
2 only
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
Answer: D
70. The situation of Structural Unemployment arises when
a) Short-run demand
deficient unemployment
b) Unemployment
resultant from the seasonal pattern of work in certain industries
c) Unemployment
resulting from the face that the regional or occupational pattern of job
vacancies does not match the pattern of work availability
d) Temporary
unemployment caused by incessant changes in the economy
Answer: C
71. Broadly an economy is classified into three sectors
i.e., Primary, Secondary and Tertiary. Of which the Secondary Sector consist of
1. Electricity
2. Water supply and construction
3. Storage
4. Mining and quarrying
Select the correct
answer from the code given below:
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: A
72.In the Eleventh Five Year Plan, a comprehensive skill
development programme with wide coverage throughout the country has been
initiated by the Government. The National Skill Development Coordination Board (NSDCB), has
already been setup to take forward the skill development mission. The core
areas to which NSDCB addressing are?
1. Curriculum revision on a
continuous basis
2. Vocational education
3. Apprenticeship training
4. Accreditation and certification
system
5. Skillgap mapping
Select the correct
answer from the code given below:
2, 3 and 5 only
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: D
73. With reference to ‘Saakshar Bharat’ programme,
consider the following statements:
1. It is the
outcome of Right to Education
2. The primary
focus of the programme to cover children (6-14 years) of below poverty line
3. The Jan Shiksha
Kendras will coordinate and manage the programmes under Saakshar Bharat
Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
3 only
Answer: D
74. How does the Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY)
addressing social protection for poor?
1. This scheme
covers BPL families (a unit of not more than six) in the unorganized sector
2. The total sum
insured is Rs. 30,000 per family per annum
3. The beneficiary
is entitled cashless transactions through smart card
Select the correct
answer from the code given below:
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
75. Which one of
the following statements is correct about ‘Rolling Plan’?
a) It is
decentralized, flexible and not imperative
b) Rolling Plan is
democratic planning, means planning by manipulating the market-no compulsion
but persuasion
c) In a Rolling
Plan, every year three new plan are made and acted upon
d) It is refer to
long term planning
Answer: C
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