HIGHER SECONDARY
SCHOOL - One Mark Test – Model Test-Chemistry 3
Full Portion Time: 1 hr Marks:
300
1. Intermolecular hydrogen bonding is present in
a) HF b) H2O c) ethanol d)
all of these
Answer: d
2. The no. of nodes in 3 s orbital is
a) 0 b) 1 c)
2 d)
3
Answer: c
3. The ratio of charge to mass of an electron was determined by
a) G.P Thomson b) J.J. Thomson c) Davisson and Germer d)
Milliken
Answer: b
4. Which is used in the application of construction of electron
microscope?
a) Planck’s theory b)
Einstein equation
c) de Broglie
relation d)
Uncertainity principle
Answer: c
5. “A molecular orbital
can accommodate only two electrons and these two electrons must have opposite
spins”. This is called
a) Aufbau principle b)
Paulis exclusion principle
c) Hunds rule d) Uncertainity
principle
Answer: b
6. The lateral overlap
of atomic orbitals gives _______ bonds
a) π b)
σ c) δ d) none of these
Answer: a
7. The magnitude of
intermolecular forces is ______ on passing from solid to liquid and from liquid
to gas
a) increases b)
decreases
c) not changes d) increases then decreases
Answer: b
8. The scale hunds is
based on relation between lonisation energy and electron affinity is
a) Sanderson scale b)
Alfred and Rochows scale
c) Pauling scale d) Mulliken
scale
Answer: d
9. Which of the
following gas zero electron affinity?
a) oxygen b)
carbon c) magnesium d) lithium
Answer: c
10. The set representing
the correct order of first ionisation potential is
a) K > Na > Li b)
Be > Mg > Ca c) B > C >
N d) Ge > Si > C
Answer: b
11. An element which
was burnt in limited supply of air to give oxide A which on treatment with
water gives an acid B. Acid B on heating gives acid C which gives yellow
precipitate with AgNO3 solution B is
a) SO3 b)
P2O3 c)
H3PO3 d)
H3PO4
Answer: b
12. The toxic element of
Boron family is
a) boron b)
Indium c) Gallium d) Thallium
Answer: d
13. The aqueous solution
of potash alum is
a) acidic b)
basic c) neutral d) amphoteric
Answer: a
14. The geometry of a
compound having sp3 hybridisation with 3 lone pairs is
a) linear b)
tetrahedral c) square planar d) bent
Answer: b
15. Ferrochrome in an
alloy of
a) Cr,C,Fe,Ni b)
Cr,CO,Ni,C c) Fe,Cr d) Cr,Ni,Fe
Answer: c
16. AgNO3 723k A + B.A and B are
a) Ag + NO3 b)
AgNO2 + NO2 c)
Ag + NO2 d) AgNO2
+ O2
Answer: d
17. Which of the
following gives colourless aqueous solution?
a) Ti3+ b)
V3+ c) Sc3+ d) Mn3+
Answer: c
18. The metal to be
chrome plated first coated with
a) lead b)
nickel c) silver d) zinc
Answer: b
19. Transition elements
in higher oxidation state form ______ bonds
a) Ionic b)
covalent c) coordinate d) metallic
Answer: b
20. Which of the
following metals are is concentrated by gravity separation method?
a) chromium b)
copper c) zinc d) silver
Answer: a
21. Which is used in
making ointment for skin diseases?
a) CuSO4 b)
K2Cr2O7 c)
AgNO3 d) ZnCO3
Answer: d
22. The most common state
of Lanthanides is
a) +1 b)
+2 c) +3 d) +4
Answer: c
23. The electronic
configuration of lanthanides is
a) [Xe] 4f1-7 5d0 6s0 b) [Xe]
4f1-7 5d0-16s2
c) [Xe] 4f1-14 5d0-1 6s2 d) [Xe] 4f1-14
5d1-10 6s2
Answer: c
24. Mg alloys containing
30% mishmetal and 1% zr are useful in making
a) jet engines b)
gas lamp materials
c) cigaretted lighters d) lead
storage batteries
Answer: a
25. The percentage of La
in mish metal is
a) 50% b)
40% c) 25% d) 5%
Answer: c
26. Cigaretted lighters
are prepared from
a) pyrophoric alloy b)
cerium salts c) mish metals d) Mg alloy
Answer: a
27. The formula of
thorium phosophate is
a) ThPO4 b)
Th2(PO4)3 c)
Th4(PO4)3 d)
Th3 (PO4)4
Answer: d
28. Which of the
following is cationic complex?
a) K4[FeCN)6 b)
[Cu (NH3)4]Cl2 c)
K3[Cr(C2O)3] d)
K3[Fe(CN)6]
Answer: b
29. The no. of ions
formed from aqueous solution of potash alum is
a) 5 b)
6 c) 7 d) 8
Answer: d
30. The ligand used as
antidotes for lead poisoning is
a) EDTA b)
oxine c) DMG d) 2,2 - bipyridyl
Answer: c
31. An example for
positive ligand is
a) hydrazinium b)
ammine c) aqua d) oxalate
Answer: a
32. Which one of the
following particles is used to bombared 13Al27 to give 15P30
and a neutron?
a) neutron b) α particle
c) proton d) deuteron
Answer: b
33. In the case of energy
released Q value of a nuclear reaction is
a) zero b)
positive c) negative d) none of these
Answer: c
34. In which of the
following emission one element is not converted to another?
a) positron b)
α c) β d) γ
Answer: d
35. An example for metal
deficiency defect is
a) NaCl b)
FeS c) FeO d) both b and c
Answer: d
36. A condition in which
certain substances can exist in between the solid and liquid state is
a) crystalline state b)
vitreous state
c) amorphous state d) pseudo
solids
Answer: b
37. Crystal containing
assemblage of positive ions immersed in a sea of mobile electrons is
a) molecular crystal b)
covalent crystal
c) metallic crystal d)
Ionic crystal
Answer: c
38. When a liquid boils,
there is ________
a) an increase in entropy b)
a decrease in entropy
c) an increase in heat of
vapourisation d) an increase in free
energy
Answer: a
39. Which of the
following liquid obeys Troutons rule?
a) H2 b)
H2O c)
CH3COOH d)
CHCI3
Answer: d
40. ΔG becomes
intensive property when ______ remains constant between initial and final
states
a) pressure b)
mass c) temperature d) enthalpy
Answer: b
41. Which is remains
constant for a Isochoric process?
a) volume b)
temperature c) pressure d) enthalpy
Answer: a
42. The standard
entropies of CO2(g), C(s) and O2(g) are
213.6,5.74 and 205 JK-1 respectively. The standard entropy of
formation of CO2 is
a) 424.34 JK-1 b)
213.6 JK-1 c)
14.34 JK-1 d) 2.86
JK-1
Answer: d
43. Entropy (s) and
entropy change (Δs)
of a process are
a) path functions b) state functions c) constants d)
none of these
Answer: b
44. The pressure applied
in contact process is
a) 300 - 500 atm b)
400 - 450 atm c) 500 - 550 atm d) 700 - 1200 atm
Answer: d
45. For the reaction 4NH3(g)
+ 5O2(g) ⇌ 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)
the equilibrium constant kc has the unit
a) (mol dm-3)-1 b) mol dm-3 c) (mol dm-3)10 d) (mol dm-3)-9
Answer: b
46. The mole ratio of H2
and N2 in Habers process is
a) 1:3 b)
3:1 c) 1:2 d) 2:1
Answer: b
47. kp and kc can be
related as
a) kp = kc (RT)Δng b)
kc = kp (RT)Δng c) kc
= kp (RT) - Δng d)
both a and c
Answer: a
48. The condition for
chemical equilibrium is
a) kc = kp b)
[reactant] = [product] c) Q = 1 d) Rf = Rr
Answer: d
49. A + 2B ⇌ 2C, ΔH = -100 KJ.
Then favourable condition for the reverse reaction is
a) increase of temperature b) increase of pressure
c) removal of C d)
addition of catalyst
Answer: a
50. The fraction of total
no. of moles of reactants dissociated is called
a) dissociative equilibrium b)
degree of dissociation
c) degree of association d) dissociation
constant
Answer: b
51. For a reaction Ea = 0
and K = 4.2 x 105 s-1 at 300 K, the value of k at 310 K
will be
a) 4.2x105 s-1 b) 8.4x105
s-1 c) 8.4x106
s-1 d) 4.2x10-5
s-1
Answer: a
52. If the products are
formed directly from the reactants then the type of reaction is called
a) elementary reaction b)
complex reaction
c) side reaction c)
reversible reaction
Answer: a
53. The order of a
reaction cannot be
a) 0 b)
10 c) 3 d) 0.5
Answer: b
54. The initial
concentration of ester in Acid catalysed hydrolysis of ester is
a)
v∞ - vt b) vt – v0 c)
v∞ - v0 d) vt - v∞
Answer: c
55. Oil soluble dye mixed with emulsion and emulsion
remains coloured then the emulsion is
a) o/w b)
w/o c) o/o d) w/w
Answer: a
56. Which type of colloid
is sol?
a) solid in liquid b)
liquid in liquid c) solid in solid d) gas in solid
Answer: a
57. Emulsifying agent is
used for
a) precipitation of emulsion b)
coagulation of emulsion
c) stabilization of emulsion d) none of
these
Answer: c
58. Electrolysis is not
applied to purify the sol containing the impurity
a) common salt b)
sugar c) alum d) ferric hydroxide
Answer: b
59. The colour of AS2O3
sol is
a) red b)
green c) yellow d) blue
Answer: c
60. The positive catalyst
for the decomposition of H2O2 is
a) Pt b)
glycerine c) MnO2 d) Pd
Answer: a
61. The catalyst used for
Bergius process is
a) CuCl2 b)
Fe2O3 c)
V2O5 d)
NO
Answer: b
62. Colloidal antimony is
used in
a) stomach disorders b)
intramuscular injection
c) eye lotion d) curing halazar
Answer: d
63. The chemical used to
impregnate the ordinary filter paper is
a) latex b)
starch c) collidion d) gossypium
Answer: c
64. When pH of a solution
is 2 the hydroxyl ion concentration in mol L-1 is
a) 1x10-2 b)
1x10-12 c)
1x10-4 d)
1x10-6
Answer: b
65. The value of pKw at
25oc is
a) 1x10-7 b)
7 c) 1x10-14 d) 14
Answer: d
66. The pH of 0.1 M
acetic acid is 3. The percentage of ionisation of acetic acid is
a) 0.1% b)
10% c) 1% d) 0.01%
Answer: c
67. The equivalent
conductance is equal to molar conductance in the case of
a) FeSO4 b)Na2SO4 c) NaCl d) H2SO4
Answer: c
68. Isopropyl alcohol
gives _____ colour in Victor Meyers test
a) red b)
blue c) green d) odourless
Answer: b
69. Glycerol and
oxidation with Fentons reagent gives
a) glyceric acid b)
mesoxalic acid
c) glyceraldehydes and dihydroxy
acetone d) glyceric acid and
tatronic acid
Answer: c
70. Which of the
following reagent convert benzyl alcohol to benzaldehyde only?
a) aq Pb(NO3)2 b) K2Cr2O7/H+ c) KMnO4/H+ d) HIO4
Answer: a
71. Williamsons synthesis
is an example for
a) nucleophilic addition b)
electrophilic addition
c) electrophilic substitution d) nucleophilic
substitution
Answer: a
72. Ethyl methyl ether on
reacts with HI gives
a) C2H5I + CH3OH b) C2H5OH + CH3I c) C2H5I + CH3I d) none of these
Answer: b
73. Oxygen atom of ether
is
a) very active b)
replaceable c) oxidising d) comparatively inert
Answer: d
74. The IUPAC name of CH3
- O - CH (CH3)2 is
a) ethoxy methane b)
1 - methoxy propane
c) 2 - methoxy propane d)1 - methl 1 -
methoxy ethane
Answer: d
75. The no. of possible
ether structures for the molecular formula C4H10O is
a) 2 b)
3 c) 4 d) 5
Answer: b
76. Ethers should never
be evapourated to dryness because
a) they form explosive peroxide b)
they are volatile
c) they are inert d)
they are lighter than water
Answer: a
77. The IUPAC name of
cinnamaldehyde is
a) 2 - propanol b)
2 - phenyl - 2 - propenal
c) 2 - butanal d) 3 - phenyl - 2 -
propenal
Answer: d
|
78. CH3 - C ≡ CH H+
X . X is
a) formaldehyde b) acetaldehyde c) acetone d)
propane
Answer: c
79. The reagent for
wolfkishner reduction is
a) Zn/ Hg and HCI b) N2H4
and C2H5ONa c)
SnCI2/HCI d) Pd / BaSO4
Answer: b
80. Which is used in vat
dyeing process?
a) formaldehyde b)
acetaldehyde c) acetone
d) benzaldehyde
Answer: a
81. The source of formic
acid is
a) red ant b)
vinegar c) butter d) valarion plant
Answer: a
82. The most reactive
compound in derivatives of carboxylic acid is
a) amide b)
ester c) acidanhydride d) acid chloride
Answer: d
83. Salicyclic acid gives
aspirin when reacts with
a) acetic anhydride b)
acetic acid c) acetyl chloride d)
both a and c
Answer: d
84. H-COOH 160oc ? the product is
a) CO + H2O b) HCHO + O2 c) CO2 + H2 d) none of these
Answer: c
85. The OH group of
alcohol or carboxylic acid can be replaced by using
a) HCI b)
PCI5 c)
CI2 d)
HOCI
Answer: b
 |
86. The isomerism
exhibited by CH3 - CH2 - N and CH2 - O - N = O is
a) tautomerism b)
chain c) functional d) position
Answer: c
87. The reaction between benzene diazonium chloride and
benzene in the presence of NaOH is
a) Gombergs reaction b)
Perkins reaction
c) Sandmeyer reaction d) Gattermann
reaction
Answer: a
88. C2H3N H2O acid then A is
a) methyl cyanide b)
methyl isocyanide
c) methyl cyanate d)
methyl iso cyanate
Answer: b
89. Nitration of nitro
benzene at 433 K gives
a) m- dinitro benzene b) 1,3,5 - tri nitro
benzene
c) O - dinitro benzene d) P -
dinitro benzene
Answer: b
90. Generally amines have
_______ odour
a) carbolic b)
fruity c) fishy d) pungent
Answer: c
91. R - NO2 B RNHOH
+ H2O. B is
a) Sn/HCI b)
Zn/NaOH c) Fe/HCI d) Zn/NH4CI
Answer: b
92. A primary amine is
converted into isocyanide by heating with
a) CHCI3 + KOH b)
CS2 c)
C6H5CHO d)
HNO2
Answer: a
93. The electrophile
involved in the coupling reaction of benzene diazonium chloride is
a) C6H5 b) C6H5+ c) C6H5N+ d) C6H5N2+
Answer: d
94. Benzene diazonium
chloride in converted into chloro benzene by _____ reaction
a) Sand meyer b)
Gattermann c) Gomberg d) both a and b
Answer: d
95. Proteins are
a) polypeptides b)
poly acids c) polyphenols d) poly esters
Answer: a
96. A tripeptide has
______ peptide bond
a) 1 b)
2 c) 3 d) none of the
these
Answer: b
97. Sucrose is
a) dextro rotatory b)
leavo rotatory c) muta rotatory d) both a and b
Answer: b
98. Starch when treated
with enzyme diastase yields
a) glucose b)
maltose c) sucrose d) cellulose
Answer: b
99. Complete reduction of
glucose with con HI and red P produces
a) isohexane b)
n - hexane c) penta acetate d) gluconic acid
Answer: b
100. The large no. of
monosaccharide units linked to each other in polysaccharides by
a) glycosidic linkage b)
peptide linkage
c) protein linkage d)
aldehydic linkage
Answer: a
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