TNPSC Group I Exam-Previous Year Question Paper-Subject wise Analysed Questions-Polity-Part 2
26. ______ state of Indian Union has its own
constitution
A) Punjab B) Arunachal Pradesh
C) Sikkim D) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer : (D)
27. Consider the following statements:
Assertion
(A): If
no-confidence motion is passed against a minister then all ministers should resign.
Reason
(R) : Only
the concerned minister resigns
Now select your answer according to
the coding scheme given below:
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer : (C)
28. Consider the following statements:
I. Directive
Principles of State policy is considered as the soul of the constitution
II. Directive Principles of state policy is
meant for protection of rights
III. Directive Principles of state policy is
crucial for constitutional remedies
IV. Directive Principles of state policy is
relevant for promotion of private property.
Of these:
A) I alone is
correct
B) II £ III
are correct
C) III £ IV
are correct
D) IV alone
is correct
Answer : (C)
29. Who appoints Finance Commission in India?
A) The
President of India
B) The Prime Minister
C) The
chairman of the Rajya Sabha
D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Answer : (A)
30. The Special Economic Zone Act was passed
in India parliament in
A) May 2005
B) April 2004
C) May 2004
D) April 2007
Answer : (A)
31. On which of the following grounds a
elected MP cane be
disqualified for defection?
I. If
voluntarily gives up membership of political party
II. If the votes or abstains from voting
contrary to the direction of his political party
III. If expelled by his party
IV. If he join some other political party other
than one from where he won.
Of these:
A) I, II, III
£ IV B) I, II £ IV
C) I, III £
IV D) II, III £ IV
Answer : (B)
32. Which one of the following is not a salient
feature of the
Constitution of India?
A) Directive
Principles of State Policy
B) Flexible constitution
C) Secularism
D) Single citizenship
Answer : (A)
33. Which is correct with regard to India’s
Foreign Policy?
A) Promotion
of world peace
B) Non-alignment
C) Panchsheel
D) All of these
Answer : (D)
34. The National Population Register is
undertaken under
A) Census
Act, 1948 £ Citizen
Rules, 2003
B) Citizenship Act of 1955 £ Citizen Rules,
2003
C) Census Act
1948 £ Citizenship Act of 1955
D) Citizen Rules, 2003 £ IB Act. 1954
Answer : (B)
35. Child marriage was abolished by the Act
in
A) 1960 B) 1965
C) 1970 D) 1975
Answer : (D)
36. Consider the following statements:
I. There
is no direct judicial remedies behind the Directive Principles of
State Policy in India
II. There are some direct judicial remedies
for the Directive Principles of State Policy in India
Of these:
A) I alone is
correct
B) I £ II are
correct
C) II alone
is correct
D) none of
these
Answer : (A)
37. The doctrine fundamental right cannot be
amended under Art.368 was
propounded by the Supreme Court in
which of the following cases?
A) Gopalan vs
State of Madras
B) Keshavanand vs State of Kerala
C) Golaknath
vs State of Punjab
D) Menaka vs Union of India
Answer : (B)
TNPSC
GROUP – I Exam- 2010
(Original
Question Paper)
38. Which of the following Amendment Acts
inserted the world ‘Secular’ in the Preamble of the Constitution of India?
A) 41st
Amendment Act, 1976
B) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
C) 43rd
Amendment Act, 1977
D) 44th Amendment Act, 1979
Answer : (B)
39. The Chairperson and other members of
State Human Rights Commission are appointed by the
A) Governor B) Chief Minister
C) Home
Minister D) none of them
Answer : (A)
40. The Constituent Assembly completed its
work of constitution making on
A) 16th
May, 1946
B) 9th
December, 1948
C) 26th
November, 1949
D) 26th January, 1950
Answer : (C)
41. Traditions affirm that a Buddhist Council
assembled at …….. in the
year of Buddha’s death.
A) Vaisali B) Padaliputra
C) Saranath D) Rajagriha
Answer : (D)
42. Article 263 deals with provision with
respect to
A) Union
Public Service Commission
B) Election
Commission of India
C) Inter-State
Council
D) Finance Commission
Answer : (C)
43. Agricultural holding tax was recommended
by
A) John
Mathai Committee
B) Bhoothalingam
Committee
C) Wanchoo
Committee
D) Raj Committee
Answer : (D)
44. Which Article of the Constitution of
India talks about liberty,
equality an fraternity?
A) Article 2 B) Article
235
C) Article
243 D) Article 38
Answer : (D)
45. As per RBI stipulation domestic banks are
required to provide ……….
percent of their net bank credit to
priority sector.
A) 32 B) 40
C) 10 D) 25
Answer : (B)
46. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A) : The Civil Service is not accountable to the
Parliament
Reason (R) : It is
governed by the norm of anonymity.
Now select your
answer according to the coding scheme given below:
A) Both (A)
and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A)
and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is
true, but (R) is false
D) (A) is
false, but (R) is true
Answer : (D)
47. Which party formed ministry in Madras
Presidency after the passing
of Government of India Act of 1935?
A) Swaraj
party B) Justice
party
C) Congress
party D) Communist party
Answer : (C)
48. The Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution
speaks about
A) functions
of the Chief Minister
B) functions
of Panchayat Raj
C) duties of
District Collector
D) functions of the parliament
Answer : (B)
49. Consider the following statements:
Assertion
(A) : Article
32 deals with the right to Constitutional Remedies, without which the constitution would be a nullity.
Reason (R) : Article 32 provides the right to move the
Supreme court by appropriate proceeding for the enforcement
of Fundamental Rights guaranteed in the
Constitution.
Now select your answer
according to the coding scheme given below:
A) (A) is
true, but (R) is false
B) (A) alone
is true
C) (R) alone
is true
D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
Answer : (D)
50. Which one of the following statements is
correct?
A) Parliament
has power to amend any part of the Constitution of India
B) Parliament has no power to amend
Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India
C) Parliament
cannot amend the Directive Principles of State Policy
D) Parliament cannot amend the Federal
Principles embodied in the Constitution of India
Answer : (A)
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