Monday 24 February 2014

Higher Secondary School Model Exam-Chemistry 3

HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL - One Mark Test – Model Test-Chemistry 3
Full Portion  Time: 1 hr     Marks: 300

1.       Intermolecular hydrogen bonding is present in
           a) HF                            b) H2O                        c) ethanol                              d) all of these

           Answer: d
2.       The no. of nodes in 3 s orbital is
           a) 0                               b) 1                             c) 2                                          d) 3

           Answer: c
3.       The ratio of charge to mass of an electron was determined by
           a) G.P Thomson        b) J.J. Thomson       c) Davisson and Germer    d) Milliken

           Answer: b
4.       Which is used in the application of construction of electron microscope?
           a) Planck’s theory                                         b) Einstein equation
           c) de Broglie relation                                     d) Uncertainity principle
          
           Answer: c
5.       “A molecular orbital can accommodate only two electrons and these two electrons must have opposite spins”. This is called
           a) Aufbau principle                                       b) Paulis exclusion principle
           c) Hunds rule                                                 d) Uncertainity principle

           Answer: b
6.       The lateral overlap of atomic orbitals gives _______ bonds
           a) π                               b) σ                             c) δ                  d) none of these

           Answer: a
7.       The magnitude of intermolecular forces is ______ on passing from solid to liquid and from liquid to gas
           a) increases                                        b) decreases
           c) not changes                                   d) increases then decreases
          
           Answer: b
8.       The scale hunds is based on relation between lonisation energy and electron affinity is
           a) Sanderson scale                           b) Alfred and Rochows scale
           c) Pauling scale                                 d) Mulliken scale

           Answer: d
9.       Which of the following gas zero electron affinity?
           a) oxygen                    b) carbon                   c) magnesium          d) lithium

           Answer: c
10.     The set representing the correct order of first ionisation potential is
           a) K > Na > Li             b) Be > Mg > Ca       c) B > C > N               d) Ge > Si > C

           Answer: b
11.       An element which was burnt in limited supply of air to give oxide A which on treatment with water gives an acid B. Acid B on heating gives acid C which gives yellow precipitate with AgNO3 solution B is
           a) SO3                          b) P2O3                       c) H3PO3                    d) H3PO4

              Answer: b
12.     The toxic element of Boron family is
           a) boron                       b) Indium                   c) Gallium                  d) Thallium

           Answer: d
13.     The aqueous solution of potash alum is
           a) acidic                       b) basic                      c) neutral                   d) amphoteric

           Answer: a
14.     The geometry of a compound having sp3 hybridisation with 3 lone pairs is
           a) linear                       b) tetrahedral            c) square planar       d) bent

           Answer: b
15.     Ferrochrome in an alloy of
           a) Cr,C,Fe,Ni              b) Cr,CO,Ni,C           c) Fe,Cr                      d) Cr,Ni,Fe

           Answer: c
16.     AgNO3    723k     A + B.A and B are
           a) Ag + NO3                b) AgNO2 + NO2       c) Ag + NO2               d) AgNO2 + O2

              Answer: d
17.     Which of the following gives colourless aqueous solution?
           a) Ti3+                           b) V3+                          c) Sc3+                        d) Mn3+

              Answer: c
18.     The metal to be chrome plated first coated with
           a) lead                         b) nickel                     c) silver                      d) zinc

           Answer: b
19.     Transition elements in higher oxidation state form ______ bonds
           a) Ionic                        b) covalent                c) coordinate             d) metallic
          
           Answer: b
20.     Which of the following metals are is concentrated by gravity separation method?
           a) chromium               b) copper                   c) zinc                        d) silver
          
           Answer: a
21.     Which is used in making ointment for skin diseases?
           a) CuSO4                    b) K2Cr2O7                 c) AgNO3                   d) ZnCO3

              Answer: d
22.     The most common state of Lanthanides is
           a) +1                             b) +2                           c) +3                           d) +4

           Answer: c
23.     The electronic configuration of lanthanides is
           a) [Xe] 4f1-7 5d0 6s0                                        b) [Xe] 4f1-7 5d0-16s2
           c) [Xe] 4f1-14 5d0-1 6s2                                     d) [Xe] 4f1-14 5d1-10 6s2

           Answer: c
24.     Mg alloys containing 30% mishmetal and 1% zr are useful in making
           a) jet engines                                                             b) gas lamp materials
           c) cigaretted lighters                                      d) lead storage batteries

           Answer: a
25.     The percentage of La in mish metal is
           a) 50%                         b) 40%                        c) 25%                        d) 5%

           Answer: c
26.     Cigaretted lighters are prepared from
           a) pyrophoric alloy     b) cerium salts          c) mish metals          d) Mg alloy

           Answer: a
27.     The formula of thorium phosophate is
           a) ThPO4                     b) Th2(PO4)3              c) Th4(PO4)3              d) Th3 (PO4)4
             
              Answer: d
28.     Which of the following is cationic complex?
           a) K4[FeCN)6              b) [Cu (NH3)4]Cl2      c) K3[Cr(C2O)3]          d) K3[Fe(CN)6]

           Answer: b
29.     The no. of ions formed from aqueous solution of potash alum is
           a) 5                               b) 6                             c) 7                              d) 8

           Answer: d
30.     The ligand used as antidotes for lead poisoning is
           a) EDTA                      b) oxine                      c) DMG                       d) 2,2 - bipyridyl

           Answer: c
31.     An example for positive ligand is
           a) hydrazinium          b) ammine                 c) aqua                       d) oxalate

           Answer: a
32.     Which one of the following particles is used to bombared 13Al27 to give 15P30 and a neutron?
           a) neutron                   b)  α particle              c) proton                    d) deuteron

           Answer: b
33.     In the case of energy released Q value of a nuclear reaction is
           a) zero                         b) positive                  c) negative                d) none of these

           Answer: c
34.     In which of the following emission one element is not converted to another?
           a) positron                   b) α                             c) β                              d) γ

           Answer: d
35.     An example for metal deficiency defect is
           a) NaCl                        b) FeS                        c) FeO                        d) both b and c

           Answer: d
36.     A condition in which certain substances can exist in between the solid and liquid state is
           a) crystalline state                                         b) vitreous state
           c) amorphous state                                       d) pseudo solids

           Answer: b
37.     Crystal containing assemblage of positive ions immersed in a sea of mobile electrons is
           a) molecular crystal                                       b) covalent crystal
           c) metallic crystal                                           d) Ionic crystal

           Answer: c
38.     When a liquid boils, there is ________
           a) an increase in entropy                             b) a decrease in entropy
           c) an increase in heat of vapourisation     d) an increase in free energy

           Answer: a
39.     Which of the following liquid obeys Troutons rule?
           a) H2                             b) H2O                        c) CH3COOH                        d) CHCI3

              Answer: d
40.     ΔG becomes intensive property when ______ remains constant between initial and final states
           a) pressure                 b) mass                      c) temperature          d) enthalpy

           Answer: b
41.     Which is remains constant for a Isochoric process?
           a) volume                    b) temperature          c) pressure                d) enthalpy

           Answer: a
42.     The standard entropies of CO2(g), C(s) and O2(g) are 213.6,5.74 and 205 JK-1 respectively. The standard entropy of formation of CO2 is
           a) 424.34 JK-1             b) 213.6 JK-1              c) 14.34 JK-1              d) 2.86 JK-1

              Answer: d
43.     Entropy (s) and entropy change (Δs) of a process are
           a) path functions       b) state functions     c) constants              d) none of these

           Answer: b
44.     The pressure applied in contact process is
           a) 300 - 500 atm         b) 400 - 450 atm       c) 500 - 550 atm       d) 700 - 1200 atm

           Answer: d
45.     For the reaction 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g)  4NO(g) + 6H2O(g) the equilibrium constant kc has the unit
           a) (mol dm-3)-1             b) mol dm-3               c) (mol dm-3)10            d) (mol dm-3)-9

              Answer: b
46.     The mole ratio of H2 and N2 in Habers process is
           a) 1:3                            b) 3:1                          c) 1:2                          d) 2:1

           Answer: b
47.     kp and kc can be related as
           a) kp = kc (RT)Δng      b) kc = kp (RT)Δng     c) kc = kp (RT) - Δng              d) both a and c

           Answer: a
48.     The condition for chemical equilibrium is
           a) kc = kp                      b) [reactant] = [product]       c) Q = 1          d) Rf = Rr

           Answer: d
49.     A + 2B  2C,   ΔH = -100 KJ. Then favourable condition for the reverse reaction is
           a) increase of temperature                          b) increase of pressure
           c) removal of C                                              d) addition of catalyst

           Answer: a
50.     The fraction of total no. of moles of reactants dissociated is called
           a) dissociative equilibrium                           b) degree of dissociation
           c) degree of association                               d) dissociation constant

           Answer: b
51.     For a reaction Ea = 0 and K = 4.2 x 105 s-1 at 300 K, the value of k at 310 K will be
           a) 4.2x105 s-1                b) 8.4x105 s-1           c) 8.4x106 s-1             d) 4.2x10-5 s-1

              Answer: a
52.     If the products are formed directly from the reactants then the type of reaction is called
           a) elementary reaction                                 b) complex reaction
           c) side reaction                                              c) reversible reaction

           Answer: a
53.     The order of a reaction cannot be
           a) 0                               b) 10                           c) 3                              d) 0.5

           Answer: b
54.     The initial concentration of ester in Acid catalysed hydrolysis of ester is
           a)  v - vt             b) vtv0                   c) v - v0                   d) vt - v

           Answer: c
55.     Oil soluble dye mixed with emulsion and emulsion remains coloured then the emulsion is
           a) o/w                           b) w/o                         c) o/o                          d) w/w

           Answer: a
56.     Which type of colloid is sol?
           a) solid in liquid         b) liquid in liquid      c) solid in solid         d) gas in solid

           Answer: a
57.     Emulsifying agent is used for
           a) precipitation of emulsion                         b) coagulation of emulsion
           c) stabilization of emulsion                                     d) none of these

           Answer: c
58.     Electrolysis is not applied to purify the sol containing the impurity
           a) common salt          b) sugar                     c) alum                       d) ferric hydroxide

           Answer: b
59.     The colour of AS2O3 sol is
           a) red                           b) green                     c) yellow                    d) blue

           Answer: c
60.     The positive catalyst for the decomposition of H2O2 is
           a) Pt                             b) glycerine               c) MnO2                      d) Pd

           Answer: a
61.     The catalyst used for Bergius process is
           a) CuCl2                      b) Fe2O3                     c) V2O5                       d) NO

           Answer: b
62.     Colloidal antimony is used in
           a) stomach disorders                                    b) intramuscular injection
           c) eye lotion                                                    d) curing halazar

           Answer: d
63.     The chemical used to impregnate the ordinary filter paper is
           a) latex                         b) starch                     c) collidion                 d) gossypium

           Answer: c
64.     When pH of a solution is 2 the hydroxyl ion concentration in mol L-1 is
           a) 1x10-2                      b) 1x10-12                         c) 1x10-4                     d) 1x10-6

              Answer: b
65.     The value of pKw at 25oc is
           a) 1x10-7                      b) 7                             c) 1x10-14                   d) 14

           Answer: d
66.     The pH of 0.1 M acetic acid is 3. The percentage of ionisation of acetic acid is
           a) 0.1%                        b) 10%                        c) 1%                          d) 0.01%

           Answer: c
67.     The equivalent conductance is equal to molar conductance in the case of
           a) FeSO4                     b)Na2SO4                   c) NaCl                       d) H2SO4

              Answer: c
68.     Isopropyl alcohol gives _____ colour in Victor Meyers test
           a) red                           b) blue                        c) green                     d) odourless

           Answer: b
69.     Glycerol and oxidation with Fentons reagent gives
           a) glyceric acid                                                           b) mesoxalic acid
           c) glyceraldehydes and dihydroxy acetone          d) glyceric acid and tatronic acid

           Answer: c
70.     Which of the following reagent convert benzyl alcohol to benzaldehyde only?
           a) aq Pb(NO3)2           b) K2Cr2O7/H+            c) KMnO4/H+             d) HIO4

           Answer: a
71.     Williamsons synthesis is an example for
           a) nucleophilic addition                               b) electrophilic addition
           c) electrophilic substitution                          d) nucleophilic substitution

           Answer: a
72.     Ethyl methyl ether on reacts with HI gives
           a) C2H5I + CH3OH     b) C2H5OH + CH3I    c) C2H5I + CH3I         d) none of these
          
           Answer: b
73.     Oxygen atom of ether is
           a) very active              b) replaceable           c) oxidising                d) comparatively inert

           Answer: d
74.     The IUPAC name of CH3 - O­ - CH (CH3)2 is
           a) ethoxy methane                                        b) 1 - methoxy propane
           c) 2 - methoxy propane                                d)1 - methl 1 - methoxy ethane

           Answer: d
75.     The no. of possible ether structures for the molecular formula C4H10O is
           a) 2                               b) 3                             c) 4                              d) 5

           Answer: b
76.     Ethers should never be evapourated to dryness because
           a) they form explosive peroxide                  b) they are volatile
           c) they are inert                                              d) they are lighter than water

           Answer: a
77.     The IUPAC name of cinnamaldehyde is
           a) 2 - propanol                                                b) 2 - phenyl - 2 - propenal
           c) 2 - butanal                                                  d) 3 - phenyl - 2 - propenal

           Answer: d
Hg2+
 
78.     CH3 - C CH    H+       X . X is
           a) formaldehyde        b) acetaldehyde       c) acetone                 d) propane

           Answer: c
79.     The reagent for wolfkishner reduction is
           a) Zn/ Hg and HCI     b) N2H4 and C2H5ONa     c) SnCI2/HCI    d) Pd / BaSO4

           Answer: b
80.     Which is used in vat dyeing process?
           a) formaldehyde        b) acetaldehyde     c) acetone                    d) benzaldehyde

           Answer: a
81.     The source of formic acid is
           a) red ant                     b) vinegar                  c) butter                     d) valarion plant

           Answer: a
82.     The most reactive compound in derivatives of carboxylic acid is
           a) amide                      b) ester                      c) acidanhydride     d) acid chloride

           Answer: d
83.     Salicyclic acid gives aspirin when reacts with
           a) acetic anhydride   b) acetic acid            c) acetyl chloride      d) both a and c

           Answer: d
84.     H-COOH     160oc   ? the product is
           a) CO + H2O               b) HCHO + O2           c) CO2 + H2                d) none of these

           Answer: c
85.     The OH group of alcohol or carboxylic acid can be replaced by using
           a) HCI                          b) PCI5                       c) CI2                          d) HOCI

           Answer: b
 


86.     The isomerism exhibited by CH3 - CH2 - N           and CH2 - O - N = O is

           a) tautomerism           b) chain                     c) functional              d) position

           Answer: c
87.     The reaction between benzene diazonium chloride and benzene in the presence of NaOH is
           a) Gombergs reaction                                   b) Perkins reaction
           c) Sandmeyer reaction                                 d) Gattermann reaction

           Answer: a
88.     C2H3N   H2O    acid then A is
           a) methyl cyanide                                          b) methyl isocyanide
           c) methyl cyanate                                          d) methyl iso cyanate

           Answer: b
89.     Nitration of nitro benzene at 433 K gives
           a) m- dinitro benzene                                   b) 1,3,5 - tri nitro benzene
           c) O - dinitro benzene                                   d) P - dinitro benzene

           Answer: b
90.     Generally amines have _______ odour
           a) carbolic                   b) fruity                       c) fishy                       d) pungent

           Answer: c
91.     R - NO2     B      RNHOH + H2O. B is
           a) Sn/HCI                    b) Zn/NaOH              c) Fe/HCI                   d) Zn/NH4CI

           Answer: b
92.     A primary amine is converted into isocyanide by heating with
           a) CHCI3 + KOH         b) CS2                                    c) C6H5CHO              d) HNO2

              Answer: a
93.     The electrophile involved in the coupling reaction of benzene diazonium chloride is
           a) C6H5                        b) C6H5+                     c) C6H5N+                        d) C6H5N2+

              Answer: d
94.     Benzene diazonium chloride in converted into chloro benzene by _____ reaction
           a) Sand meyer           b) Gattermann          c) Gomberg               d) both a and b

           Answer: d
95.     Proteins are
           a) polypeptides          b) poly acids              c) polyphenols          d) poly esters

           Answer: a
96.     A tripeptide has ______ peptide bond
           a) 1                               b) 2                             c) 3                              d) none of the these

           Answer: b
97.     Sucrose is
           a) dextro rotatory        b) leavo rotatory        c) muta rotatory        d) both a and b

           Answer: b
98.     Starch when treated with enzyme diastase yields
           a) glucose                   b) maltose                 c) sucrose                  d) cellulose

           Answer: b
99.     Complete reduction of glucose with con HI and red P produces
           a) isohexane              b) n - hexane            c) penta acetate        d) gluconic acid

           Answer: b
100.   The large no. of monosaccharide units linked to each other in polysaccharides by
           a) glycosidic linkage                                     b) peptide linkage
           c) protein linkage                                           d) aldehydic linkage


           Answer: a