Wednesday 8 June 2011

Civil Services Exam 2011- CSAT-Paper 1 -Model Test 2 Part1

Indian Civil Services Exam 2011- CSAT- Paper 1 Model Paper 2 -Part1

Time Allowed: Two Hours                                   Maximum Marks : 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This Test Booklet contains 150 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers).

You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

2. You have to mark to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.

See directions in the Answer Sheet.

3. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions of UPSC

4. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

5. Penalty for wrong answers :

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted a penalty.
ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happen to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.

iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.





Q.I : Tick the correct option /Do as directed :

1. Constitutional remedies for environmental protection have been given under –

A) Article 21and 32.
B) Article 226 only .
C) Article 226 and 32.
D) All the above.

Ans: D


2. In which of the following cases ,’’Right to wholesome environment’’ was recognized as a fundamental right ?

a) Rural Litigaton Entitlement Kendra Dehradun v/s. state of U.P.
b) M.C .Meheta v/s UOI (Ganga Pollution case).
c) Koolwal v/s. State of Rajasthan.
d) None of the above.

Ans:A


3. Whoever damages any works or property belonging to the Board constitude under the Air Act, shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to –

a) three years.
b) six years.
c) six months.
d) three months.


Ans: D


4. The right to development imposes the following duties on States –

a) formulation of appropriate policy .
b) Ensuring equal access to basic resources .
c) Promote ,encourage and strengthen respect for human rights .
d) All the above



Ans:  D



5. Kyoto Conference was held in –

a) 1997.
b) 1992.
c) 1972.
d) 1986.


Ans: A


6. Section ..... of I.P.C. considers noise as a public nuisance .

a) 268.
b) 269.
c) 270.
d) 284.


Ans: A


7. The central subject of Agenda 21 is

a) Right to life and liberty .
b) Fundamental duty of government to protect the  environment .
c) Fundamental duty of citizens to protect the environment.
d) Sustainabale development .


Ans: D


8. “The State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forest and wildlife of the country ’’. It has been provided under which Article of the Constitution of India ?

a) 51A (g).
b) 48A.
c) 51A.
d) 21.


Ans: B


9. In india most of the environmental jurisprudence has been devloped through ..... . the jurisprudence of the High Courts and the supreme Court .

a) Original .
b) Appellate .
c) Criminal .
d) Extra-ordinary, original writ.


Ans: D


10. The case, Krishna Gopal v/s. of M.P. relates to which type of pollution ?

a) Water pollution.
b) Air and water pollution .
c) Noise and Air pollution .
d) water and Noise pollution.


Ans: C


11. A person already operating any industrial plant in any air pollution control area immediately before the commencement of section 9 of the Air (Prevention and
Control of pollution ) Amendment Act, 1987, for which no consent was necessary prior to such commencment, may continue to do so for a certain period .This period is –

a) Six months .
b) Tow years.
c) One year.
d) Three months.


Ans: D

12. “Our common future” is a report on

a) Pollutions in the world .
b) Status of global environment.
c) Sustainable devleopment .
d) Devleopment at all cost .


Ans: C


13. when any offence is commited by a company under the Enviroment (protection ) Act , 1986,who shall be deemed to be guilty of such offence ?

a) Company as whole.
b) The person dirctly in -charge of and responsible for the conduct of the business of the      Company
c) The Head of the Department.
d) All the above.


Ans: D


14. In Environment pollution cases,the amount of compensation payable by the polluter depends upon the magnitude and prosperity of the enterprise.this was held by the Supreme Court in

a)Ganga Pollution case .
b) Oleum Gas Leak case .
c) Bhopal Gas Leak case .
d) Taj Trapezium case.


Ans: B


15. Materialistic approach of industrial houses caused heavy depletion in the natural resources and also adverse effects due to the mining activities namely –

a) Collapsing of ground surface due to withdrawal of ground water and mineral oil .
b) Reduction of forest cover due to felling of trees.
c) Increase of solidarity of ground due to excavation of land for mining operation .
d) only a) and b).
e) only a), b) and c).


Ans: D


16. In which of the following cases,the court expressed the view that smoking pollutes the environment and affects the health of non-smokers, hence it should be banned at public places like hospitals, libraries,auditoria, etc.

a) B.L . Wadhera v/s. UOI .
b) Murli Deora v/s.UOI .
c) M.C. Mehta v/s.UOI.
d) Ishwar Singh v/s .UOI . state of Haryana .


Ans: B


17. In 1980, Central Government appointed the ...........the Committee to review the environmental legislations and recommend measures for ensuring environment protection

a) Gupta.
b) Tiwari.
c) Thakur .
d) Bnwari


Ans: B


18. Under the Environment (Protection ) Act ,Power of Central Government to take measures to protect and improve environment u/s .3 with respect to

a) Planning and execution of a nation –wide programme .
b) Laying down standards for ambient noise levels
c) Laying down procedures and safeguards for the handing of hazardous substasnces .
d) All the above .


Ans: D


19. which of these Articles of the Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to make laws for implementing any, international treaty, agreement or convention .

a) Article 250.
b) Article 251.
c) Article 252.
d) Article 253.


Ans: D


20. Section 42 of the Air Act provides that no suit, prosecution or other legal proceeding shall lie against –

a) The Government .
b) Any officer of the Government .
c) Any member of the Board .
d) Any officer or other employee of the Board .
e) All the above .
f) only a) d) above .


Ans: E


21. Under the Air Act,the power to make rules to carry out the purpose of the Act, is given to

a)Central Board .
b) Central Board, as well as, State Board.
c) State Government.
d) Central, as well as, State Government.


Ans: D


22. Under section 51, any person who contravenes any provisions of the Wildife (Protection) Act or any rule of order, made thereunder, shall be guilty of an
offence against the Act and shall, on conviction be punishable with –

a) Imprisonment which may extend to six months and with fine which may textend to five hundred rupees.
b) Imprisonment which may extend to three years or with fine which may extend to twenty five thousand rupees.
c) Imprisonment which may extend to one year or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees.
d) None of the above.


Ans: B


23. The components of Disaster Management Plan include –

(I) Early warning System.
(II) Rescue Operations.
(III) Relief Operations.
(IV) Rehabilitation.
(V) Long-run Planning.

a) I and II only
 b) I, II and III only
c) IV and V only
d) All the above


Ans: C


24. The residents have constitutional right, as well as, statutory right to live in a clean city ad the Municipal Authorities have a mandatory duty to collect and dispose off the garbage and waste generated from various sources in the city. The Supreme Court has
emphasised this in –

(a) Dr. B. L. Wadhera v/s. UOI.
(b) Municipal Council of Ratlam v/s. Vardhichand.
(c) Ganga Pollution case.
(d) ‘Buffalo Traders’ Welfare Association v/s. Maneka Gandhi.


Ans: B


25. The National Environment Tribubal shall have, for the purpose of discharging its functions under the Act, the same powers as vested in a Court –

(a) Civil.
(b) High.
(c) District.
(d) Magistrate.


Ans: A


26. Consider the following statements about Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran Pariyojna (MKSP) :

I Its aim at improving the status of women as agriculturist and open up opportunities for their employment.
II The scheme will be laundhed by Ministry of Women Welfare and Development.
III Its objective will be to achieve socio-economic and technical empowerment of rural women farmer.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) I, II and III only
 b) I and III
c) II only
d) I only


Ans: B


27. Consider the following statements:

I The Armed Force (Special Power) Act (AFSPA) was declared first time in Manipur in
  1980 as foreign trained insurgents had become uncontrollable.
II Under the Act the army has been deployed to  assist the civil administration in the   state.
III Armed Force (Special Power) Act (AFSPA) was passed on 1958 by the Parliament of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) I, II and III
b) I and III
c) II only
d) I only


Ans: A


28. Which one of the following is not a National Party :

a) Bahujan Samaj Party - BSP
b) Rashtriya Janta Dal - RJD
c) Communist Party of India (Marxist) - CPI (M)
d) Communist Party of India – CPI


Ans: B


29. For getting National Party status, a political party should have recognition :

a) In at least two states
b) In at least three states
c) In at least four states
d) In at least two states with the full majority


Ans: C


30. The 681 remaining Eastern Swamp Deer in the world can only be found at

a) Keibul Lamjao
 b) Kaziranga
c) Manas
 d) Nokrek


Ans: B


31. Consider the following statements about Jal Hans :

I It is India’s first time that sea plane operations are being introduced in India.
II This is the first time that sea plane operations are being introduced in India.
III The scheme aims to give impetus to the tourism infrastructure in the islands

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) I, II and III
b) I and III
c) II and III
d) II only


Ans: A


32. Consider the following statements:

I The Governement of India has launched an ambitious program to empower Elected Woman Panchayat representatives in collaboration with US and United Nations Development Fund for Women (UNIFEM)
II The project was named as “Promoting Women’s Political Leadership and Governance in India and South Asia”.
III It was launched on a pilot basis in Bihar and Karnataka.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) I, II and III
b) II and III
c) I only
 d) II only


Ans: B


33. Consider the following statements:

I India has become the largest borrower from the International Development Association (IDA), the soft loan affiliate of the World Bank.
II India is the third largest borrower of the International Bank for Reconsideration and
Development (the World Bank)
III Among the states in the country Gujarat is now the largest borrower from the World Bank.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) I, II and III
b) I and II
c) I only
d) II only


Ans: B


34. Consider the following statements with respect to Public Account Committee :

I The committee on Public Account is constituted by Parliament each year for examination of accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by Parliament for expenditure of Govt.of India.
II The Committee consist of not more than 22 members comprising 15 members elected by Lok Sabha and 7 members of Rajya Sabha every year.
III The Chairman is appointed by the President of India.
IV. A Minister is eligible to be elected as the member of the Committee.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) I, II, III and IV
b) I and II
c) III only IV
d) I, III and IV


Ans: B


35. Consider the following statements about Shale Gas:

I It is an unconventional source of Natural Gas.
II Shale Gas is Natural Gas produced from shale formation.
III In terms of its chemical make-up Shale Gas is typically a dry gas primarily composed   of methane
IV Shales ordinarily have insufficient permeability to allow signifiant fluid flow to a well bore, most shales are not commercial source of natural gas.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) I, II, III and IV
b) I, II and III
c) I, III and IV
d) II and IV


Ans: A


36. Shuvo Roy was recently in new because :

a) He has corrected world’s first implantale artifical kidney.
b) He has created world’s best cotton fibre which can absorb oil spill in sea water
c) He has become world’s first person to reach both the end (North and Sourth Poles) of the world
d) He has become the world’s first person to circumnavigate the whole world in a small yacht.


Ans: A



37. Consider the following statements about Kaladan Multi Model Transit Transport Project :
I The project named after the Kaladan river is aimed to enhance connectivity between India’s East Coast and North-Eastern State.
II The project comprises construction of a prt in Myanmar’s town Sittwe.
III The project will link Sittwe with Tripura

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) I, II and III
b) I and II
c) I only
d) II only


Ans: B


38. Consider the following statements about Happy Planetary Index (HPI)

I It is an index of human well-being and environmental impact that was introduced by the New Economic Foundation (NEF) in 2006.
II New Economic Foundation (NEF) was foundedin 1986 by the leaders of The Other Economic Summit (TOES)
III HPI is designed to challenge will established Indices of countries development, such as GDP and HDI.
IV Nepal boasts the highest life satisfaction of anywhere in the world

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) I, II, III and IV
b) I, II and III
c) I, III and IV
d) II, III and IV


Ans: B


39. Consider the following statements about Ozone :

I Ozone is an allotropic form of Oxygen.
II It is a kind of super-charged Oxygen, bluish in colour with distinctive, penetrating adour.
III It is also known as try atomic Oxygen (O2) and chemically very active.
IV It is destroy bacteria in water and is used in treating drinking water.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) I, II, III and IV
b) I, II and III
c) I, III and IV
d) II, III and IV


Ans: A


40. Consider the following statements :

I India launched its national Action Plan in Climate Change in 2008.
II The National Action Plan stress that maintaining high growth rate is essential for increasing living standards of vast majority of people of India and reducing their vulnerability of the impact of Climate Change.
III The National Action Plan outlines are National Strategies that aims at enablilng the country adapt to climate change and enhance the ecological sustainability of India’s developmental path.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) I, II and III
b) II and III
c) I only
d) II only


Ans: A


41. Consider the following statements about the National Green Tribunal

I The National Green Tribunal has officially being notified by the chairperson of the Tribubnal, Justice Lokeshwar Singh Panta
II The National Green Tribunal marks the first time a Tribunal exclusively dedicated environmental issue as been setup.
III This Body, established by an Act of Parliament (being the National Green tribunal Act of 2010) will have circuit benches across the country to try all matters related to and arising out of environmental issues.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) I, II and III
b) II and III
c) I only
d) II only


Ans: A


42. Consider the following statements about international Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) :
I IUCN is the world’s oldest and largest global environmental network.
II The Union’s Head Quarter is located in Gland, near Geneva, Switzerland.
III IUCN was founded in 1948 as the world’s first global environmental organisation and has Official Observer Status at eh United Nations General Assembly.
IV India was the first country in South Asia to join IUCN as a state member in 1969.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) I, II, III and IV
b) I and III
c) II and IV
d) II and III


Ans: A


43. Which one of the following pairs is correct in decreasing order of Mangrove cover in the country (sq. km.)

(a) West Bengal - Gujarat - Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(b) Gujarat - West Bangal - Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands - West Bengal -Gujarat
(d) West Bengal - Andaman and Nicobar Islands - Gujarat


Ans: A


44. Consider the following statements about Project Elephant

I The Project was launched in 1982.
II Assam is one of the state in which project is implemented.
III India’s Environment Ministry has declared Elephant as National Heritage Animal.
IV States are being given financial as well as technical assistance in achieving the objectives of the Project.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) I, II, III and IV
b) II, III and IV
c) I, II and III
d) III and IV


Ans: B

45. Consider the following statements about Project Cheetah :

I Kuno-Palpur and Nauradhi in Madhya Pradesh and the Shahgarh Bulge in Jaisalmer District chosen for introducing Cheetah, which is now extinct in the country.
II The Shahgarh Bulge in Jaisalmer is along the International Border and is a grass land withsparse population and good presence of Chinkara as the prey base.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) only I
b) only II
c) Both I and I
d) Neither I nor II


Ans: C


46. “Changes in the earth’s climate system due to anthropogenic interference” is an issue related with?

(a) Vienna Convention for protetion of the Ozone Layer
(b) Montreal Protocol on Substance that Deplete the Ozone Layer
(c) Basel Convention on Trans – Boundary Movements of Hazardous Wates and their
Disposal.
(d) United Nation Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)


Ans: D



47. Consider the following statements :

I The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), is an autonomous body, setup in 1974, under the Provision of the Water (Provision and Control of the Pollution) Act 1974.
II The CPCB co-ordinates the activities of the State Pollution Control Board (SPCBs) and Pollution Control Committees (PCCs) and also advice the Central Government on all matters concerning the prevention and control of environmental pollution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) only I
b) only II
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II


Ans: C


48. Who among the following has firt conceptualised the concept of Eco Tourism

a) John Locke
b) R. K. Pachauri
c) Stanely Cohen
d) Hector Ceballos – Lascurian


Ans: D


49. Arrange the following in the correct chronological order as per there formation :

I Zoological Survey of India
II Botanical Survey of India
III Geological Survey of India
IV Forest Survey of India

Select the correct answer form the code given below:
a) III, II, I, IV  
b) III, II, IV, I
c) II, III IV, I  
d) II, III, I, IV


Ans: A


50. Consider the following statements :

I The Forest Survey of India prepares thematic map on 1:50,000 - scale and forest vegetation map of the country
II Vegetation map of the country are prepared after every three years
III India has the target of increasing forest to onethird of its territory by 2012
IV Forest comes under State List

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) I and II
b) II and IV
c) I and III
d) II and III


Ans: C

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