Tuesday 21 May 2013

UPSC Exam- Civil Services Exam 2013-General Studies Model Test Paper 5-Part 1

 Civil Services Exam 2013-General Studies Model Test Paper 5-Part 1



Civil Services Exam 2013-General Studies Full Test – 5
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
TEST BOOKLET                                                                                        GENERAL STUDIES- Paper I
Test Series-I
Time Allowed: 2 Hours                                                                                                   Maximum Marks: 200  
1.       IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2.       ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A,B,C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3.       You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box 
4.       This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses (answers).You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5.       You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6.       All items carry equal marks.
7.       Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8.       After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9.       Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10.    Penalty for wrong answers.
THERE WILL BE PENALITY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
                                 i.            There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answers has been given by the candidates, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
                                ii.            If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
                              iii.            If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
______________________________________________________________________
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

1. Headline WPI inflation which averaged 9.56 per cent in 2010-11 and 8.94 per cent in 2011-12 decelerated to 7.55 per cent in the first nine months of 2012-13 (Apr-Dec). Which of the following are the reason for inflation?
1. persistently elevated prices for eggs, meat and fish
2. rise in the prices of cereals and vegetables
3. increase in international prices of fertilizers
4. decrease in administered prices of diesel
a) 1,2,3 &4
b) 1,2 &3
c) 2,3 &4
d) None of the above




Answer: B




2. Find out the correct statements
1. Inflation in protein foods, particularly eggs, meat and fish and in fruits & vegetables has persisted because of changes in dietary habits and supply constraints.
2. Long time series data from National Accounts on private final consumption expenditure indicate a structural shift in per capita consumption.
3. The share of food consumption in total consumption has declined.
4. The share of protein foods within overall food expenditure increased.
a) 1, & 3 only
b) 1,2 & 3 only
c) 3 & 4 only
d) All of the above




Answer: D





3. Find out the correct statement
1. In world GDP in 2011, the share of services was 67.5 per cent more or less the same as in 2001.
2. The top 15 countries in terms of services GDP are also the same in overall GDP in 2011.
3. Among the top 15 countries with highest overall GDP in 2011, India ranked 11th in overall GDP and 10th in services GDP.
4. A comparison of the services performance of 15 countries in the eleven year period from 2001 to 2011 shows that the increase in share of services in GDP is the highest for India.
a) 1,2 & 4 only
b) 1,2 & 3 only
c) 1,3 & 4 only
d) 1,2,3 & 4




Answer: A





4. The share of services in employment for many developed countries is very high and in many cases higher than the share of services in incomes but the gap between these shares is relatively less. Find out the correct statement on this regard?
1. All the BRICS countries have a similar pattern.
2. China's share of services in both income and employment is relatively low due to the domination of the industrial sector.
a) Both 1 & 2
 b) 1 only
c) 2 only
d) None of the above




Answer: B





5. Find out the correct statement
1. The growth of services in the world and India in the 2000s began from almost the same level of around 4-5 per cent in 2000.
2. Over the years, India's overall and services growth rates have outpaced those of the world
3. India's service growth has been consistently above its overall growth in the last decade.
4. This sector has been pulling up the growth of the Indian economy with a great amount of stability for more than a decade
a)1,2 & 3 only
b) 2,3 & 4 only
c) 1,3 & 4 only
d) 1,2,3 & 4




Answer: C





6. Find out the correct statement
1. A comparison of the share of services in the gross state domestic product of different states and union territories in 2011-12 shows that the services sector is the dominant sector in most states of India.
2. Service Growth Rate is the highest in Himachal Pradesh
3. The share of service sector is highest in Delhi
a) 1 & 2 only
b) 2 & 3 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) 1,2 & 3




Answer: A





7. FDI in multibrand retail trading has been permitted subject to specified conditions. Which of the following are considered to be such conditions?
1. Fresh agricultural produce, including fruits, vegetables, flowers, grains, pulses, fresh poultry, fishery and meat products may be unbranded
2. Minimum amount to be brought in as FDI by the foreign investor would be US $100 million.
3. At least 25 per cent of total FDI brought in shall be invested in 'backend infrastructure' within three years of the first tranche of FDI
4. At least 30 per cent of the value of procurement of manufactured/processed products purchased shall be sourced from Indian 'small industries' which have a total investment in plant and machinery not exceeding US $ 1 million.
a) 1,2 & 3 only
b) 2,3 & 4 only
c) 1, 3 & 4 only
d) 1,2 & 4 only




Answer: D





8. RESDEX index is of
a) World Habitat Programme
b) National Housing Bank
c) Price Movement of Housing companies in Bombay Stock Exchange
d) Price Movement of Housing companies in National Stock Exchange




Answer: B





9. The NMP was approved by the government in October 2011. The major objectives of the policy ar enhancing the share of manufacturing in gross domestic product (GDP) to 25 per cent and creating an additional 100 million additional jobs over a decade or so. The NMP provides for promotion of clusters and aggregation, especially through the creation of national investment and manufacturing zones (NIMZs). Out of twelve NIMZs so for announced, eight are along the DMIC. Besides, four other NIMZs have been given in principle approval. Find out those NIMZs
1. Nagpur in Maharashtra
2. Tumkur in Karnataka
3. Chittoor in Andhra Pradesh
4. Medak in Andhra Pradesh
a) 1,2 & 3 only
b) 2,3 & 4 only
c) 1,2 & 4 only
d) 1,2,3 & 4




Answer: D





10. The MSME sector covers both the registered and informal sectors. The classification of micro, small and medium enterprises at present is based on the criterion of investment in plant and machinery by each enterprise. In order to boost the MSME sector, several schemes are under operation. Which of the following include among those schemes?
1. As per Procurement Policy, all the central ministries/departments/central public sector undertakings (CPSUs) shall procure minimum of 20 per cent of their annual value of goods/services required by them from MSEs from April 2013.
3. The Ministry of MSME has adopted a cluster approach for holistic development of MSE in a cost effective manner.
3. The Government is implementing the Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme for MSEs with the objective of facilitating flow of credit to the MSEs, particularly to micro enterprises by providing guarantee cover for loans upto Rs.100 lakh without collateral/third party guarantees.
4. Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme for Micro and Small Enterprises (CLCSS) for MSEs aims at facilitating technology up gradation of MSEs by providing 15 per cent capital subsidy limited to the 15 lakhs for purchase of plant & machinery.
a) 2,3 & 4 only
b) 1,2 & 3 only
c) 1,3 & 4 only
d) 1,2 3 & 4




Answer: A





11. Find out the correct statement regarding FDI inflows
1. FDI equity inflows showed a increase of 43 percent as compared to the previous year.
2. Services, hotels and tourism attracted maximum FDI inflows
3. In FDI equity investments, Mauritius tops the list of first ten investing countries.
4. As per The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) World Investment Report, India is the third most attractive location for 2012-14.
a) 1,2,3 & 4
b) 1,2 & 3 only
c) 2,3 & 4 only
d) 3 & 4 only




Answer: C





12. It was declared as UNESCO world heritage site in the year 2012. It is the largest and deepest world heritage site in the world. It is also a Marine Protected Area. In includes few Islands and two submerged coral reefs named Carondelet reef and Winslow reef. Find out the name of the site mentioned here
a) Bunaken Marine Park
b) Phoenix Island Protected Area
c) Mesoamerican Barrier reef system
d) Cordelt Bank




Answer: B




13. The World Database on Protected Areas is the largest assembly of data on the World's terrestial and Marine Protected Areas. Find out the correct statement about WDPA
1. It is a joint venture between United Nations Environment programme World Conservation Monitoring centre and the International Union for Conservation Monitoring Centre and the International Union for Conservation of Nature, World Commission on Protected Areas.
2. Protected Planet is a database Internet Portal for WDPA
3. It uses the IUCN's definition of a protected areas.
a) 1,2 & 3
b) 1 only
c) 2 only
d) 2 & 3 only




Answer: A





14. It is the oldest and deepest lake in the world. It contains 20% of the world's total unfrozen fresh water reserve. It is known as the Galapagos of Russia. It is the most outstanding example of a fresh water ecosystem on the basis of Natural criteria vii, viii, ix & x of UNESCO. Find out the name of the lake mentioned here.
a) Tanganjika
b) Caspian Sea
c) Lake Baikal
d)Vostak




Answer: C





15. This lake is located within 5 countries. It is the earth's biggest enclosed body of water. There are no rivers releasing the lake's waters. The salinity of the lake is around 1.25%, enough to make it inhabitable by some salt water marine life. Find out the lake
a) Red Sea
b) Black Sea
c) Caspian Sea
d) Sea of Azov




Answer: C





16. Lazarus Taxon is a taxon that disappeared for one or more periods from the fossil Record, only to reappear later. Which of the following are reappearing in IUCN red list species?
1. Yellow tailed Woolly Monkey
2. Woolly flying Squirrel
3. Miller Grizzled Langur
4. Tammer Wallerby
a) 1,2,3 & 4
b) 2,3 & 4 only
c) 1,2 & 3 only
d) 2 & 3 only




Answer: A





17. Phytoremediation describes the treatment of Environmental problems through the use of plants. Phytoextraction is one of the Phytoremediation process in which substances are concentrated into the plant Biomass. Find out the correct substance with its plant Biomass
1. Arsenic - Sunflower
2. Lead - Indian mustard
3. Caesium 137 - Indian Mustard
4. Strontium 90 - Sunflower
a) 1,2,3 & 4
b) 1 & 2 only
c) 2 & 3 only
d) 1,2 & 4 only




Answer: D





18. Due to the lower carbon emission and the greater possibility to use waste material, there are high scope for 2nd generation biofuels that are mainly made from non-edible foodstocks such as lingocelluloic materials like wood and straw. Which of the following are the advantages of 2nd generation Biofuel than the first generation Biofuel?
1. They are more efficient & environmentally friendly
2. Less farmland is required because the whole plant can be used
3. Use of fertilizer to grow these plants is very high
a) 1,2 & 3
b) 1 & 2 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) 2 & 3 only




Answer: B





19. There seems to have been some development of trade during the later vedic period. Find out the correct statement about Medium of Exchange during later vedic period?
1. Cattle served as a medium of Exchange
2. Niksha, a gold ornament with a fixed weight
3. Satamanan, a weight of Gold/Silver
4. Krisnala, a Gold Coin
a) 1,2 , 3 & 4
b) 2,3 & 4 only
c) 1,2 & 3 only
d) 2 & 3 only





Answer: C




20. Find out the reason for the Surat Split?
1. The moderates believed that the methods like boycott should be used only in special circumstances and for specific purposes.
2. Moderates managed to call off the educational boycott in 1905.
3. The extremists advocated a relentless boycott of the government educational institutions, justice and executive administration, backed up by the positive development of Swadeshi industries, national schools and arbitration courts.
a) 1,2 & 3
b) 1 & 2 only
c) 1 & 3 only
d) 2 & 3 only




Answer: A





21. It authorised the Government through a system of special courts, to detain anyone without trial for a maximum period of two years. While all the sections of Indian opinion deeply resented the Act, it was Gandhiji who suggested a concrete form of a mass protest at an all Indian level. Which of the following Act is mentioned
a) Government of India Act 1919
b) Arms Act
c) Press Act
d) Rowlatt Act




Answer: D





22. At Gandhi's insistence crucial changes were made in the organisation of the Congress to turn it into a real people's party during the Non-Cooperation Movement. Which of the following changes are correct on this regard?
1. A regular four-anna membership to enable the poor to become members
2. A hierarchy of village-taluka-district or town committees, so as to enable the congress to reach down to the grassroots.
3. Reorganisation of PCCs on a linguistic basis so as to bring it closer to the people by suing the vernacular.
4. The number of delegates to be fixed in proportion to the Natural Resources.
a) 1,2,3 & 4
b) 1,.2 & 3 only
c) 2,3 & 4 only
d) 1 & 4 only




Answer: B





23. 'Iam here, therefore, to invite and submit cheerfully to the highest penalty that can be inflicted upon me for what in law is a deliberate crime, and what appears to me to be the highest duty of a citizen'. It is a statement, released in 10th march 1922, of which of the following Freedom Fighter
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Rabindranath Tagore
c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
d) Mahatma Gandhi




Answer: D





24. The Government pressed for a Public Safety Bill which would empower it to summarily deport any one, and the Trade Disputes Act of April 1929, which imposed a system of tribunals and sought to ban strikes 'undertaken of objects other than furtherance of trade dispute or if designed to coerce the government and/or inflict hardship of the Community'. What is/are the reaction of congress towards the Bill?
a) The congress officially opposed both the bills.
b) congress supported Public Safety Bill
c) congress supported Trade Dispute Act
d) congress supported both the bills




Answer: A





25. Find the correct statement
1. 'The Independence for India League' was organised by Jawahar and Subash
2. It acted as a pressure group within the congress
3. Its goal was to achieve Complete Independence and a Socialist, Democratic State.
4. It was created in the year 1920
a) 1,2,3 & 4
b) 1,3 & 4 only
c) 1,2 & 3 only
d) 2,3 & 4 only




Answer: C

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